Dear all,
I wonder what you experts consider to be a standard (or good) size for a reraise when you have position on the original raiser?
Preflop – if there is an opening-raise (R1) of 4*BB from MP, no calls and you reraise with >JJ/AK in LP. How much of a raise would you put in?
Suppose you know this particular raiser will open in MP with the following hands: 99/AQ/AJs (72 hands, of which there are 36 pairs 99+).
2.5*R1 would lay about 1:2.6 pot-odds for the raiser who is OOP.
A miniraise of 2*R1 yields about 1:3.4.
What's your move?
Also related situation: you have limped in and taken a cheap flop in LP with 44 behind 2 limpers, SB completes (Potsize: 5BB). Flop comes AT4, with T4 of same suit. Both blinds check, and there is a pot-sized bet from the first limper. Second limper folds. You read the guy for either AQ-AT or Ax-suited on a strong nut-flush draw with top pair. It is a solid player, but not a real shark.
Action to you. You face a bet of 5BB (current potsize = 10BB).
How much do you reraise? And if you say pot-sized, exactly what does that mean?
Grateful for suggestions!
/
Snok