I just got unlucky here.

I call the half-pot bet on the flop with MP3 behind me because I was sure he would raise it up, and then I got all my money in, so I'm pretty satisfied with it, apart from the outcome, obviously..

I threw in the overbet to make it look a bit suspicious (weak). Is this a good thing to do? I always tend to think that if you reraise to cover them exactly it looks a bit like 'I have a monster and I want all your money', whereas this could look a bit like an intimidation bet by me? Thoughts?

PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $1.00 BB (9 handed)

saw flop|saw showdown

MP3 ($41.10)
CO ($175.15)
Button ($33.40)
SB ($46.40)
BB ($99.35)
UTG ($18.90)
UTG+1 ($129.05)
MP1 ($53)
Hero ($114.90)

Preflop: Hero is MP2 with , .
3 folds, Hero calls $1, MP3 calls $1, 2 folds, SB raises to $3, 1 fold, Hero calls $2, MP3 calls $2.

Flop: ($10) , , (3 players)
SB bets $5, Hero calls $5, MP3 raises to $15, SB calls $10, Hero raises to $50, MP3 calls $23.10 (All-In), SB calls $28.40 (All-In).

Turn: ($141.50) (3 players, 2 all-in)

River: ($141.50) (3 players, 2 all-in)

Final Pot: $141.50

Results in white below:
SB has Ad Jd (two pair, tens and sixes).
Hero has 3h 3c (full house, threes full of tens).
MP3 has Ah Td (full house, tens full of sixes).
Outcome: MP3 wins $124.30. Hero wins $17.19.

I guess he's semibluffed the flop and from that point he's getting 2:1 on on his money to draw to the nuts, isn't he?

It does look odd, though.

whoops, didn't see he had the diamonds. Either way, you go screwed.