$1/$2 NL 6 max....both hands are played at the same time. Different tables / different villains.

#1) UTG raises $7. Im next and call with [6s]. BB also calls.

UTG is 22 / 16 and has been mentioned at 2+2 as pretty good reg although i only have 200 hands with him and dont remember anything about him.

Pot $22. Flop [9h][2c]. BB checks, UTG raiser checks..I check also.
Pot $22. Turn . BB checks. UTG bets $16. I raise to $44. He calls.
Pot $110. River . He checks.

I think anyone who plays 22 / 16 is going to bet the flop with a flush draw. Hes also betting a K every time. My line looks like I have a flush. I think he probably has [Qd] or [Jh] type hands. I fire $72. Thoughts?

#2) Same time at other table....

Cutoff ($210) limps, button ($127) raises $7. I call in the BB with [Qc]. Limper calls also. Button is 17 / 4 so he clearly has a good hand here.

Pot $22. Flop [Jd][5h]. I check..limper checks..raiser bets $9. I was busy with the other hand and call without thinking much. Limper folds.

Pot $40. Turn . I check. He bets $25. Im not going to go thru my thought process here because honestly, i didnt have one. I call.

Pot $90. River . I check. He shoves his last $86 all in. Hmmm/..Now Im thinking. This bet just seems strange. He probably thinks I have a flush draw so im not calling any bet since I missed. Why go all in if he has a hand? Based on how tight he is preflop I think he has JJ or AK. I dont think he would push in with a medium hand like AJ or even AQ. I dont think he would bet only $9 on the flop with AA / KK. Thoughts?