Hand 1)
I have $50, villain has $40. I raise in MP with
[Kh] to $2.50. Villain in SB is only caller.
Flop:
[9s][2d].
Villain bets $0.50 into a $5,50 pot. I don't know what that means, and I guess it's a feeler bet, so I raise the pot. Villain calls.
Turn:
. Villain checks. What to do here? What do you put him on? Unlikely he called with QT preflop, so I'm not that worried about the straight. JJ or 99 worries me most, but why would he draw attention by min betting the flop? A flush is possible. Still he hasn't shown any strength and I have my spade outs, so I fire $15 into a $20 pot. Villain calls.
River:
. Villain moves allin for his remaining $16. Pot is $66 now, and I call reluctantly and out of sheer confusion. Villain takes the pot with KJ.
I wouldn't have a problem folding on the flop or the turn if he'd shown any aggression, but I had severe trouble reading him correctly. If he read me for AK then he certainly maximized his win, knowing (on the flop) that only an A could hurt him. But then he should have raised the turn...
The opponent in the second hand is fairly passive but doesn't seem to play crap hands.
Hand 2) I have $50, opponent has $60. I open raise with
[Qc] in LP and get called by opponent in BB.
Flop:
[Qs][8c].
Opponent bets $1,50. I raise the pot, opponent calls.
Turn:
. Opponent checks, I check behind.
Is this too weak? I thought about betting but chose to take the free card.
River:
. Opponent goes allin, I fold.
Any ideas? In both hands the betting pattern small bet- pot raise- call confused me. How is this to be interpreted in general?
Thanks, Pieter