Hand 1. I'm BB with
[Ks]. Two limpers, I raise to $2,50. BB and villain call. My stack is $50, villain has $40, BB has $20.
Flop:
[8c][4c]. (Pot about $7,50).
I bet pot. BB folds, villain calls. I don't think he has a flush draw, because I have the ace, but KQ of clubs is not impossible. With a K I would expect a raise, but he seems to be a bit passive. I'm worried about 88.
Turn:
. I decided to bet here, and I bet $15. Villain moves in, it's $15 for me to call, which I do.
River:
. Opponent has K7 and takes the pot.
Normally, if an unknown opponent calls a potsized bet on that board, would you assume a set and check-fold the turn?
Hand 2: I have $50, villain has $90. I get AQo in EP and raise to $2,50. Villain is only caller.
Flop:
[8d][3h].
I bet pot, villain calls. By now I know he call many bets on the flop, hoping to outdraw or outplay on later streets.
Turn is a
. I still think that I'm ahead here, so I bet $15 into a $16,50 pot. Villain calls again. Since he raises if he hits something hard, I still figure to be ahead.
River:
. This completes every possible draw. I check, opponent goes allin, I fold. (Opponent shows JJ).
Should I overbet or push the turn in order to discourage him from staying in?
Any help appreciated.
![The Ace of Spades [As]](https://www.pofex.com/images/smilies/As.gif)